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Week 2, Question 1

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$\\frac{d}{dz}e^z = \\frac{d}{dz}(1 + \\frac{z}{1!} + \\frac{z^2}{2!} + \\frac{z^3}{3!} + ...)$

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$= \\frac{d}{dz}1 + \\frac{1}{1!}\\frac{d}{dz}z + \\frac{1}{2!}\\frac{d}{dz}z^2 + \\frac{1}{3!}\\frac{d}{dz}z^3 + ... $

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$= 0 + \\frac{1}{1!} + \\frac{2z}{2!} + \\frac{3z^2}{3!} + ... $

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$= 1 + \\frac{z}{1!} + \\frac{z^2}{2!} + \\dots = e^z$

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The function $e^z$ can be defined by the following power series:

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$e^z = 1 + \\dfrac{z}{1!} + \\dfrac{z^2}{2!} + \\dfrac{z^3}{3!} + \\dots $

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This power series has the property of being absolutely convergent for any $z$. Thus a rearrangement of its terms is allowed. Show that the following relation holds:

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$\\dfrac{d}{dz}e^z=e^z$

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No submission required for this task. Try to solve the problem by yourself and click on Reveal answers to compare with the given solution.

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